财务管理题,如下,有几题会做哪一题请帮忙解说一下,全会最好,一题也谢谢!

2024-12-05 04:26:20
推荐回答(1个)
回答1:

第1题:


 Disc. rate      8%          


 所有金额单位为万美元          


 Year      Return (at year end)      Discounted to Y0        Compounded to Year-end Y8    


 0                      0                                   0.00                                          0.00     


 1                      0                                   0.00                                          0.00     


 2                    100                                85.73                                       158.69     


 3                    100                                79.38                                       146.93     


 4                    100                                 73.50                                      136.05     


 5                    100                                 68.06                                     125.97     


 6                    300                                189.05                                    349.92     


 7                    400                                233.40                                     432.00     


PV      729.13                           FV      1,349.56    

PRESENT VALUE:


为统一起见,所有原始数值都按年末来算,因此第3年年初的100万美元记为第2年年末,同理,第8年年初的400万美元记为第7年年末。


贴现一列的数值计算方法为:


        实现收益 / ((1+8%)^年数)

        举例说明:第2年年底实现收益100万贴现到第0年年初后其贴现值为

        100/((1+8%)^2)=100/(1.8^2)=85.73万美元

因此,以第一年年初为“现在”,那么该投资的现值为729.13万美元。


如需公式展开,如下所示:

Present Value = 100/((1+8%)^2)+100/((1+8%)^3)+100/((1+8%)^4)+100/((1+8%)^5)+300/((1+8%)^6)+400/((1+8%)^7) = 729.13 Million USD;


FUTURE VALUE

终值一列的计算方法为:


        以第8年年末为“终点”,

        实现收益*((1+8%)^(8-年数))

        举例说明:第2年年底的100万美元复利到第8年年末,其第8年末复利终值为

        100*((1+8%)^(8-2))=100*(1.08^6)=158.69万美元

                         第7年年底的400万美元复利到第8年年末,其第8年末复利终值为

        400*((1+8%)^(8-7))=400*(1.08^1)=432.00万美元

因此,以第8年年末为“终点”,那么该投资的终值为1,349.56万美元。


如需公式展开,如下所示:


Future Value = 100*((1+8%)^6)+100*((1+8%)^5)+100*((1+8%)^4)+100*((1+8%)^3)+300*((1+8%)^2)+400*((1+8%)^1) = 1,349.56 Million USD;


第2题


(a) For an "Annuity Due" problem, we can use the present value of annuity due formula

PV(Annuity due) = C * [ (1-(1+i)^(-n))/i]/(1+i), where


    C = Cash flow per period

    i  = interest rate

    n = number of payments

    substituting the C, i, n values into the formula (all values in ten-thousand USD)

    PV (Annuity due) = 40 * [(1-(1+10%)^(-25))/0.1]/(1+10%) = 40*((1-1.1^(-25))/0.1)/1.1 = 330.07 ten-thousan USD

   该领奖方式的现值为339.07 万美元


 (b) There are two parts of payments

     For the first part where 350 (万美元) is given now, 

     PV1 = 350 (万美元);

     For the second part where 30 (万美元)is given at the end of each year starting from the 4-th year, 

      we can use the Ordinary Annuity formula (because the payments are given at year-end), and the present value now is the the PV of the Ordinary Annuity (C=30, i=10%,n=5) discounted from the beginning of the 4-th year to now, i.e.:

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